Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 03:15
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Is it safe to take a hot shower after being exposed to extremely low temperatures?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Should India conduct another air strike to attack Pakistan over the Pahalgam attack?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.